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As should be obvious from my post, I do not think that this contradicts the Orthodox position, as that is expressed by, amongst others, St. Maximus the Confessor. For a discussion of this, see Edward Siecienski, The Filioque: History of a Doctrinal Controversy (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2013), 73-86.

Siecienski, however, makes a mistake, I think, in his conclusion, when he says that “the teaching that the ἐκπόρευσις (hypostatic origin) of the Spirit comes from both from the Father and the Son as from a single principle finds no support in the trinitarian program of Maximus, whether it be in the Quaestiones ad Thalassium 63 or in the Letter to Marinus” (p.86).

This presupposes that the Latin teaching means something else than the Spirit proceeding THROGH the Son but I do not see how that automatically follows. Yes, it may be what some Western theologians have taught (i.e. that the Son becomes a cause of the Spirit) but it is not a necessary reading of the phrase and it is inherent to neither the Nicene Creed (in Latin) nor the Athanasian Creed.

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